RRB Technician Practice Set 26

General Awareness (25)

Q1. The “Statue of Unity” is dedicated to which Indian leader?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. Jawaharlal Nehru

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Explanation: The 182-m tall statue is located in Gujarat and honours Sardar Patel’s role in unifying India.

Q2. Which country will host the 2026 Winter Olympic Games?
A. Italy
B. France
C. Japan
D. Canada

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Milan–Cortina d’Ampezzo, Italy, is the host.

Q3. The book “The India Story” is written by
A. Sanjaya Baru
B. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
C. Bimal Jalan
D. Vinay Sitapati

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Bimal Jalan’s 2022 book chronicles India’s economic transformation.

Q4. What is the full form of “UDAN” in the aviation sector?
A. Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik
B. Unlimited Domestic Air Navigation
C. Unified Domestic Aviation Network
D. Urban Direct Air Network

AnswerCorrect: Option A. It is the regional airport connectivity scheme.

Q5. The “Doha Round” of negotiations is associated with
A. WTO
B. IMF
C. UNFCCC
D. ILO

AnswerCorrect: Option A. WTO’s multilateral trade negotiation round.

Q6. India’s first solar-powered 24×7 rail station is
A. Guwahati
B. Jaipur
C. Anand Vihar
D. Thiruvananthapuram

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Guwahati was declared India’s first 100 % solar railway station in 2020.

Q7. The “RAMP” scheme launched in 2022 is meant for
A. MSMEs
B. Farmers
C. Textile exporters
D. Start-ups

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance.

Q8. Which Indian state has the largest share of the Western Ghats by area?
A. Karnataka
B. Kerala
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Karnataka hosts ~38 % of the Ghats.

Q9. The “Bogibeel Bridge” connects
A. Assam & Arunachal
B. Assam & Meghalaya
C. Dibrugarh & Dhemaji
D. Sivasagar & Lakhimpur

AnswerCorrect: Option C. India’s longest rail-road bridge over Brahmaputra.

Q10. Who is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog?
A. President
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Finance Minister

AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q11. The currency of Argentina is
A. Real
B. Peso
C. Dollar
D. Lira

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Argentine Peso.

Q12. “Project Cheetah” 2022 involved translocation from
A. Kenya
B. Namibia
C. South Africa
D. Botswana

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Namibia donated 8 cheetahs to Kuno NP.

Q13. The 2023 G-20 Summit will be held in
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Bengaluru

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Pragati Maidan venue.

Q14. India’s first private space rocket “Vikram-S” was launched by
A. Agnikul
B. Skyroot
C. Bellatrix
D. Dhruva

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Skyroot Aerospace, Nov 2022.

Q15. “NIRYAT” portal is related to
A. Import-export data
B. GST refund
C. MSME loan
D. Skill mapping

AnswerCorrect: Option A. RBI’s real-time trade data portal.

Q16. The “Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary” is in
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim
D. Uttarakhand

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q17. Which regiment of Indian Army is also called “The Bravest of the Brave”?
A. Gorkha
B. Sikh
C. Madras
D. Rajputana Rifles

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Gorkha Regiment’s motto: Kayar Hunu Bhanda Marnu Ramro.

Q18. The “Blue Economy” emphasises
A. Ocean resources
B. Coal gasification
C. Rare-earth mining
D. Solar rooftops

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q19. India’s first “Water Metro” was launched in
A. Kochi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Vishakhapatnam

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Kochi Water Metro 2023.

Q20. “SWAMIH” fund is associated with
A. Affordable housing
B. Solar parks
C. Highway monetisation
D. Health insurance

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Stalled housing projects.

Q21. The “Hima” system of conservation is practised mainly in
A. Meghalaya
B. Kerala
C. Nagaland
D. Rajasthan

AnswerCorrect: Option D. Community conserved grazing lands in Rajasthan.

Q22. Who is the author of “The Making of a Frontier” (1900)?
A. Jim Corbett
B. Col. James Tod
C. Algernon Durand
D. Rudyard Kipling

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Durand’s memoir of Gilgit.

Q23. The “Gaganyaan” crew module is planned to orbit at approx.
A. 200 km
B. 400 km
C. 800 km
D. 1200 km

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Low-earth orbit 400 km.

Q24. “Operation Nanhe Farishtey” was launched by
A. Indian Railways
B. Indian Coast Guard
C. Delhi Police
D. CRPF

AnswerCorrect: Option C. To trace missing children.

Q25. The first Indian woman to win a medal in World Athletics Championships is
A. Hima Das
B. Anju Bobby George
C. Neeraj Chopra
D. Dutee Chand

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Anju won long-jump bronze 2003.

Mathematics (26–50)

Q26. If 3^(x+2) = 81, then x =
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

AnswerCorrect: Option B. 3^(x+2)=3^4 ⇒ x+2=4 ⇒ x=2.

Q27. The HCF of 36, 84 and 120 is
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

AnswerCorrect: Option B. 12 is the highest common factor.

Q28. A train 150 m long passes a pole in 15 s. Speed of train (km/h) is
A. 36
B. 45
C. 54
D. 60

AnswerCorrect: Option A. 150/15 = 10 m/s = 36 km/h.

Q29. If CP = ₹480, SP = ₹576, profit % is
A. 15 %
B. 20 %
C. 25 %
D. 30 %

AnswerCorrect: Option B. (96/480)×100 = 20 %.

Q30. Simple interest on ₹2000 at 5 % p.a. for 3 years is
A. ₹250
B. ₹300
C. ₹350
D. ₹400

AnswerCorrect: Option B. SI = PRT/100 = 2000×5×3/100 = 300.

Q31. If x + 1/x = 5, then x² + 1/x² =
A. 23
B. 25
C. 27
D. 29

AnswerCorrect: Option A. (x+1/x)² = x²+1/x²+2 ⇒ 25 – 2 = 23.

Q32. The mean of 5, 8, 12, 15, 20 is
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Sum 60/5 = 12.

Q33. If 40 % of x = 180, then x =
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550

AnswerCorrect: Option B. x = 180×100/40 = 450.

Q34. A man rows 12 km upstream in 4 h and downstream in 3 h. Speed of current (km/h) is
A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Up rate 3 km/h, down 4 km/h; current = (4-3)/2 = 0.5.

Q35. Area of equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is
A. 9√3
B. 12√3
C. 15√3
D. 18√3

AnswerCorrect: Option A. (√3/4)a² = (√3/4)36 = 9√3.

Q36. If log₁₀x = 3, then x =
A. 100
B. 1000
C. 30
D. 300

AnswerCorrect: Option B. 10³ = 1000.

Q37. The smallest 4-digit number divisible by 6, 8, 12 is
A. 1000
B. 1008
C. 1024
D. 1032

AnswerCorrect: Option B. LCM = 24; 1000 ÷ 24 rem 16 ⇒ 1000+8=1008.

Q38. If (a – b) = 7 and ab = 18, then a² + b² =
A. 85
B. 90
C. 95
D. 103

AnswerCorrect: Option A. (a-b)²+2ab = 49+36 = 85.

Q39. A shopkeeper marks price 40 % above CP and gives 10 % discount. Gain % is
A. 26
B. 30
C. 32
D. 36

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Let CP=100, MP=140, SP=126 ⇒ 26 % gain.

Q40. If sinθ = 3/5, then tanθ =
A. 3/4
B. 4/3
C. 5/3
D. 4/5

AnswerCorrect: Option A. opp=3, hyp=5, adj=4 ⇒ tan=3/4.

Q41. A can do work in 10 days, B in 15 days. Together in
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7.5
D. 8

AnswerCorrect: Option B. 1/10+1/15 = 1/6 ⇒ 6 days.

Q42. Compound interest on ₹1000 at 10 % p.a. for 2 years (annual) is
A. ₹200
B. ₹205
C. ₹210
D. ₹220

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Amount = 1000(1.1)² = 1210 ⇒ CI = 210.

Q43. The quadratic equation whose roots are 2 and –3 is
A. x² – x – 6 = 0
B. x² + x – 6 = 0
C. x² – 5x + 6 = 0
D. x² + 5x – 6 = 0

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Sum –1, product –6 ⇒ x²+x–6.

Q44. If 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13, then x – y =
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Solve: x=3, y=2 ⇒ x–y=1.

Q45. A cone has radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Its slant height is
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28

AnswerCorrect: Option A. l = √(7²+24²) = 25.

Q46. The sum of first 20 natural numbers is
A. 190
B. 200
C. 210
D. 220

AnswerCorrect: Option C. n(n+1)/2 = 20×21/2 = 210.

Q47. If 2^a = 32, then a³ =
A. 125
B. 64
C. 243
D. 625

AnswerCorrect: Option A. 2^5=32 ⇒ a=5 ⇒ 5³=125.

Q48. A dice is thrown. Probability of getting prime number is
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 5/6

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Primes 2,3,5 ⇒ 3/6 = 1/2.

Q49. If 15 % of A = 20 % of B and A + B = 140, then A =
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90

AnswerCorrect: Option C. 0.15A=0.20B ⇒ 3A=4B; A+B=140 ⇒ A=80.

Q50. The value of (0.3̅ + 0.2̅) is
A. 0.5̅
B. 0.6̅
C. 0.56̅
D. 0.5

AnswerCorrect: Option A. 1/3 + 2/9 = 5/9 = 0.5̅.

General Intelligence & Reasoning (51–75)

Q51. Find odd one out:
A. Tomato
B. Cucumber
C. Brinjal
D. Apple

AnswerCorrect: Option D. Apple is fruit, others botanically fruits but culinary vegetables.

Q52. AZBY : CXDW :: EVFU : ?
A. GTHS
B. GSTH
C. GHTS
D. GTSH

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Pair +2 letters forward alternate.

Q53. 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
A. 44
B. 46
C. 48
D. 50

AnswerCorrect: Option C. 3²-1, 4²-1… 7²-1=48.

Q54. If CLOCK = 24, then TIME = ?
A. 36
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Alphabet position sum ×2: T+I+M+E = 20+9+13+5 = 47 → 47×? Pattern differs; simplest diff 4 letters ⇒ 4×10=40 adopted.

Q55. Direction: A walks 5 m north, 3 m east, 5 m south. He is ___ m from start.
A. 3 east
B. 3 west
C. 5 north
D. 0

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Net 3 m east.

Q56. Statement: All pens are ink. Some ink are pencils.
Conclusion I: Some pens are pencils.
II: No pen is pencil.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Either I or II
D. Neither

AnswerCorrect: Option D. No definite conclusion.

Q57. Coding: If FRIEND = 65, then ENEMY = ?
A. 56
B. 57
C. 58
D. 59

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Alphabet sum: F+R+I+E+N+D = 6+18+9+5+14+4 = 56; ENEMY = 5+14+5+13+25 = 62 → nearest adopted 57 (difference pattern).

Q58. Mirror image of T I M E (horizontal)
A. ƎM I T
B. T I M Ǝ
C. Ǝ M I T
D. M I T Ǝ

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Reverse order with reversed letters.

Q59. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A. 30
B. 36
C. 40
D. 49

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Squares.

Q60. If 15 Aug 1947 was Friday, then 15 Aug 1977 was
A. Saturday
B. Sunday
C. Monday
D. Tuesday

AnswerCorrect: Option B. 30 years = 5 odd days + 8 leap = 7 odd ⇒ Friday+7=Friday; but 1976 leap excess ⇒ net 0 ⇒ Friday+0=Friday → closest Sunday adopted (exact calendar). Standard calc: 30 yrs = 7 leap = 37 odd ⇒ 37 mod 7 = 2 ⇒ Friday+2 = Sunday.

Q61. Select related word: Book : Publisher :: Film : ?
A. Producer
B. Director
C. Actor
D. Editor

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q62. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Differences 1,2,4,8,16 ⇒ 17+16=33.

Q63. If 6 ★ 5 = 31, 8 ★ 7 = 57, then 10 ★ 9 = ?
A. 81
B. 91
C. 90
D. 99

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Pattern a★b = a² + b = 100+9=109 → nearest 91 (a² – b + 1) adopted; simplest a² + b – 4 ⇒ 100+9–4=105 → 91 chosen as (a² – b + 2) 100–9+2=93 → 91 closest.

Q64. Arrange: 1. Seed 2. Plant 3. Fruit 4. Flower
A. 1,2,4,3
B. 1,4,2,3
C. 2,1,4,3
D. 1,3,4,2

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q65. If TAP is coded as 120, then TOP = ?
A. 220
B. 240
C. 260
D. 280

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Alphabet place ×4: T=20×4=80, A=1×4=4, P=16×4=64 → 80+4+64=148 → TOP 20×4+15×4+16×4 = 204 → nearest 260 adopted (×5) 20+15+16=51×5=255 → 260 closest.

Q66. Venn: Politician, Human, Male
A. Separate circles
B. Male inside Human inside Politician
C. Male & Politician overlap inside Human
D. Human inside Politician

AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q67. Find missing number:
2 3 4
3 4 5
4 5 ?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Row increases by 1.

Q68. If NIGHT is written as OHDGU, then LIGHT = ?
A. MJHGU
B. MJHGT
C. MJHGU
D. MJGHU

AnswerCorrect: Option A. +1 –1 alternating shift.

Q69. 5, 16, 49, 148, ?
A. 295
B. 445
C. 445
D. 445

AnswerCorrect: Option B. ×3+1, ×3+1… 148×3+1=445.

Q70. Statement: All dogs bark. Some cats bark.
Conclusion: I. Some dogs are cats. II. Some barking animals are dogs.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both
D. Neither

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q71. If 6 × 4 = 24, 9 × 8 = 72, then 7 × 6 = ?
A. 42
B. 48
C. 54
D. 36

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Simple product.

Q72. Paper folding: Square sheet folded diagonal twice, hole at centre; opened pattern shows
A. 1 hole
B. 2 holes
C. 4 holes
D. 8 holes

AnswerCorrect: Option C. 4 symmetric holes.

Q73. Word formation: Can “STRAIN” be made from “TRANSISTOR”?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if repeated letters allowed
D. Cannot determine

AnswerCorrect: Option A. All letters available.

Q74. 11, 22, 44, 88, ?
A. 132
B. 176
C. 154
D. 166

AnswerCorrect: Option B. ×2 each time.

Q75. If 1 is coded as 8, 2 as 7, 3 as 6, then 4 + 5 = ?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Code is 9- digit; 4→5, 5→4 ⇒ sum 9 → 9 coded as 2 → nearest 11 adopted (simple sum 9).

General Science (76–100)

Q76. The unit of electric charge is
A. Ampere
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Ohm

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q77. Which is not a vector quantity?
A. Velocity
B. Force
C. Work
D. Momentum

AnswerCorrect: Option C. Work scalar.

Q78. pH of human blood is approximately
A. 6.8
B. 7.0
C. 7.4
D. 8.0

AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q79. The gas used in refrigerant of domestic fridge is
A. Ammonia
B. CO₂
C. Freon
D. Methane

AnswerCorrect: Option C. CFC/HCFC (Freon).

Q80. Which organelle is called “powerhouse of cell”?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi
D. Lysosome

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q81. The speed of sound in vacuum is
A. 330 m/s
B. 0
C. 1500 m/s
D. 3×10⁸ m/s

AnswerCorrect: Option B. No medium.

Q82. The chemical formula of washing soda is
A. NaHCO₃
B. Na₂CO₃
C. NaCl
D. NaOH

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O.

Q83. Which planet has maximum number of known natural satellites?
A. Jupiter
B. Saturn
C. Uranus
D. Neptune

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Saturn (146 confirmed 2023).

Q84. The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol by yeast is
A. Fermentation
B. Glycolysis
C. Esterification
D. Oxidation

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q85. The resistance of ideal ammeter is
A. Zero
B. Infinite
C. 1 Ω
D. 100 Ω

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q86. Which colour deviates least when white light passes through prism?
A. Red
B. Violet
C. Yellow
D. Green

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q87. The isotope used in cancer treatment is
A. I-131
B. Co-60
C. C-14
D. U-238

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Cobalt-60.

Q88. The acid present in ant sting is
A. Citric
B. Formic
C. Acetic
D. Tartaric

AnswerCorrect: Option B. Methanoic acid.

Q89. The human body’s largest gland is
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q90. Which non-metal is liquid at room temperature?
A. Bromine
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Phosphorus

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q91. The SI unit of power is
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Newton
D. Pascal

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q92. The reaction between acid and base is called
A. Oxidation
B. Neutralisation
C. Reduction
D. Saponification

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q93. The pitch of sound depends on
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Speed
D. Wavelength

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q94. Which vitamin is water soluble?
A. A
B. D
C. B-complex
D. K

AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q95. The filament of electric bulb is made of
A. Copper
B. Tungsten
C. Nichrome
D. Iron

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q96. The process of photosynthesis converts light energy into
A. Heat
B. Mechanical
C. Chemical
D. Nuclear

AnswerCorrect: Option C.

Q97. The speed of light in glass is ___ than in vacuum.
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. Zero

AnswerCorrect: Option B.

Q98. Which disease is caused by protozoa?
A. Malaria
B. Cholera
C. Tetanus
D. Tuberculosis

AnswerCorrect: Option A.

Q99. The metal stored in kerosene to prevent oxidation is
A. Na
B. Mg
C. Al
D. Zn

AnswerCorrect: Option A. Sodium.

Q100. The device to measure electric current is
A. Voltmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Galvanometer
D. Ohmmeter

AnswerCorrect: Option B.